......Something He Must Have Known Was A Failure?
It is Generally accepted that Luke's Gospel was written AD 80–110. But whichever date is acceptable it stands to reason that Luke wrote his account after the crucifixion of Jesus. So why did he leave out the parts where none of the predictions concerning Jesus' came to fruition?
Luke 1:32-33 New International Version
The angel Gabriel appears to Mary telling her:
" He [Jesus the Jew ] will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David, and he will reign over Jacob’s descendants forever; his kingdom will never end.”
So with this in mind we have here a gospel writer, writing decades after the fact choosing to ignore the fact that non of the above ever came to fruition, why?
It all appears on the face of it that these predictions fit the expectations of a Messiah to the Jews of the time. i.e. A warrior that will reinstate the greatness of Israel. Rule over the "house of Jacob" referring to the 12 tribes that he come to reunite.
But as we see by the time Luke scrambled his gospel together two thing simply leap from it pages. 1st: he completely and utterly failed to fulfil the messianic role as per Gabriel's predictions. 2nd: early Christians such as Paul attempt to redefine the role of and expected messiah.
So it should be obvious to anyone that claims to have studied and had memorised the the gospel that Luke (writing decades after the fact) simply couldn't have invented the words spoken by the angel Gabriel. So why make up a prediction that had already failed!?
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You show an abysmal lack of understanding of God and the Bible.
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" He [Jesus the Jew ] will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David, and he will reign over Jacob’s descendants forever; his kingdom will never end.”
Luke's gospel is generally dated at 70 - 90 AD. I think it is earlier because in the sequel - Acts, Paul is not dead at the end of that book, suggesting that he had not died before it was written. Anyways, Luke is writing to a primarily non-Jewish audience, so he doesn't do as many Old Testament references as Matthew, who is writing primarily to a Jewish audience. The statement in Luke is true as far as Christian theology goes. Jesus did sit down at the right hand of God in heaven (see Acts) and was the Messiah of the Jews. His kingdom is an eternal one, where both Jacob's descendants and anyone else who puts their trust in him go.
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Luke and Mathew couldn't even agree on what this holy god given child's name was supposed to be if the OT prophecy is to be believed.
Was it Jesus? or was it Immanuel?
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Well, regardless of what you only "think", Paul never met Jesus .
Paul met Jesus on the road to Damascus in a similar way that Abraham saw Jesus on Mt. Moriah.
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Paul conversed with Jesus in person, something that most Christians have never done.
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Paul was a self confessed . He admits to being a to further the cause of his agenda.
Romans 3:7
King James Version
7 For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?
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God spoke to Saul (Paul) verbally on the road to Damascus.
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That has nothing to do with your claim of Jesus' "spiritual" real.
Look, Luke wrote his gospel after Jesus was crucified. But even with this knowledge he seems to have ignored that the promise had failed to come to fruition.
Luke 1:32-33 New International Version
FAIL!
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The Lord God will give him the throne of his father David,
Exactly. This is posted by AI:
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My point is Luke wrote his gospel after the crucifixion knowing Jesus' mission had failed.
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My point is Luke wrote his gospel after the crucifixion knowing Jesus' mission had failed.
The entire New Testament was written after Jesus rose again, proving His mission had not failed.
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he didn't " inherit the throne of David" and " his kingdom didn't last for ever" . In fact it never began.
That prophecy has not yet been fulfilled.
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