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should naval bases only be permitted within ones who own sea ?
in Politics

By KAMALKAMAL 2 Pts edited February 6
Hey guys , I really need your help with this.



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  • edited February 6
    If you mean within countrys that own sea, then yes. I think that a country should have full rights to have what ever form of military they see fit, regardless of what they own.
    Zombieguy1987
    Sovereignty for Kekistan
  • And, every country with a border on international waters has a border extending 12 miles off of the coast.
    Sovereignty for Kekistan
  • The question of the rules of utilisation of the national waters has been a matter of intense debate, at the very least, since the Phoenician times. Phoenician political organisation featured somewhat independent nation-traders, and the arguments over their right to establish their own rules on the part of the sea adjacent to their location were very common.

    In my opinion, the part of the sea that lays within the country's borders belongs to the country, and its population as a whole can perform any activities it desires there, including building naval bases. 

    The more interesting question is what part of the sea should belong to a given country in the first place. Take Turkey, for example. How much of the Mediterranean Sea should it own? How can it be assessed? It is much easier with the land territory, as, by the homestead principle, whoever has colonised the given part of the land first owns it. But how do you "colonise" a part of a sea or an ocean? With the modern technology, at least, aside from building floating stations (which, since they are floating and can be easily moved anywhere, can hardly be associated with a given part of a sea/ocean anyway), there are no obvious ways to claim a part of a water body permanently.

    Should Turkey own the water body located 1 mile away from its shore? Obviously, yes. What about 100 miles away? The lines become blurry there.
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