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There is nothing inherently wrong about rape, debate me

Debate Information

Hi this is my first debate on this website, I'm probably gonna get banned soon but hey, controversial debates are always the quickest to attract attention
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  • JulesKorngoldJulesKorngold 847 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360
    Trump celebrates his rapes.  Are you a Trump supporter?
    CYDdharta
  • JoesephJoeseph 732 Pts   -  
    You won't get banned, maybe you should lay your case out why you think this way that's if you even have one.
  • RickeyHoltsclawRickeyHoltsclaw 175 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360 ; Anyone who would make such a statement is a perverse id-iot...how do you debate a perverse id-iot?
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -  
    Argument Topic: Argument

    My reasoning for this is that rape is a form of sexual intercourse. Sex is only meant to reproduce and NOT to consider the feelings of a side. The desire to reproduce is backed up by the need for pleasure, therefore we shouldn't consider the feelings of someone when involved in rape.
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -  
    Argument Topic: Argument

    My reasoning for this is that rape is a form of sexual intercourse. Sex is only meant to reproduce and NOT to consider the feelings of a side. The desire to reproduce is backed up by the need for pleasure, therefore we shouldn't consider the feelings of someone when involved in rape.
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360 ; Anyone who would make such a statement is a perverse id-iot...how do you debate a perverse id-iot?
    That hasn't stopped you from debating.
    just_sayinGiantMan
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    My reasoning for this is that rape is a form of sexual intercourse. Sex is only meant to reproduce and NOT to consider the feelings of a side. The desire to reproduce is backed up by the need for pleasure, therefore we shouldn't consider the feelings of someone when involved in rape.
    Are you suggesting forcible rape is simply an act of reproduction? If so how do you explain child rape and same sex rape where reproduction is known not to be possible? 
    JoesephOakTownAjust_sayinGiantMan
  • just_sayinjust_sayin 1065 Pts   -   edited May 8
    My reasoning for this is that rape is a form of sexual intercourse. Sex is only meant to reproduce and NOT to consider the feelings of a side. The desire to reproduce is backed up by the need for pleasure, therefore we shouldn't consider the feelings of someone when involved in rape.
    Rape is a crime because it is an act of violence.  Rape violates the sanctity of the victim.  Rape is about power and control.  It is not an act of mutual consent.  

    The underlying logic of the argument is bad.  It seems as if the argument is suggesting that if we just redefine acts of violence in more favorable terms then it is OK to commit them.  If we said murder was OK, because it reduced global warming emissions, would it be OK to do it then?  If we said theft was OK, because it was giving to the poor and needy, would it still not be wrong?  In the same way these acts of violence would still be wrong because they are acts of violence, rape would still be wrong because it is an act of violence.  The interests of the victim are ignored by the argument, and in so doing, the victim is  dehumanized.  Her rights as an individual are ignored.  She is considered as something less than human, and only what she can contribute to some evolutionary goal is considered.
    RickeyHoltsclawOakTownAFactfinderGiantMan
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    My reasoning for this is that rape is a form of sexual intercourse. Sex is only meant to reproduce and NOT to consider the feelings of a side. The desire to reproduce is backed up by the need for pleasure, therefore we shouldn't consider the feelings of someone when involved in rape.
    Rape is a crime because it is an act of violence.  Rape violates the sanctity of the victim.  Rape is about power and control.  It is not an act of mutual consent.  

    The underlying logic is bad.  It seems as if the OP is suggesting that if we just redefine acts of violence in more favorable terms then it is OK to commit them.  If we said murder was OK, because it reduced global warming emissions, would it be OK to do it then?  If we said theft was OK, because it was giving to the poor and needy, would it still not be wrong?  The interests of the victim are ignored by the OP, and in so doing, they are dehumanized.  Their rights as an individual are ignored.  They are considered as something less than human, and only what they can contribute to some evolutionary goal is considered.
    Not sure why you brought up the evolutionary angel but the idea actually can be a result of religious dogma...

    Deuteronomy 22:28- 29 “If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl’s father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.”

    Seems that dehumanizes women along the same lines.
    OakTownAjust_sayinGiantMan
  • just_sayinjust_sayin 1065 Pts   -   edited May 8
    My reasoning for this is that rape is a form of sexual intercourse. Sex is only meant to reproduce and NOT to consider the feelings of a side. The desire to reproduce is backed up by the need for pleasure, therefore we shouldn't consider the feelings of someone when involved in rape.
    Rape is a crime because it is an act of violence.  Rape violates the sanctity of the victim.  Rape is about power and control.  It is not an act of mutual consent.  

    The underlying logic is bad.  It seems as if the OP is suggesting that if we just redefine acts of violence in more favorable terms then it is OK to commit them.  If we said murder was OK, because it reduced global warming emissions, would it be OK to do it then?  If we said theft was OK, because it was giving to the poor and needy, would it still not be wrong?  The interests of the victim are ignored by the OP, and in so doing, they are dehumanized.  Their rights as an individual are ignored.  They are considered as something less than human, and only what they can contribute to some evolutionary goal is considered.
    Not sure why you brought up the evolutionary angel but the idea actually can be a result of religious dogma...

    Deuteronomy 22:28- 29 “If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl’s father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.”

    Seems that dehumanizes women along the same lines.
    You have misunderstood the passage.  I'm just going to quote from Apologetic Press:

    begin quote:

    One prevalent idea in skeptical circles is that the God of the Old Testament is cruel and condones practices that are immoral. Each example that skeptics have provided to prove this thesis, however, has been shown to be false. We see time and again that the God of the Old Testament is the same God of love that we observe in the life and personality of Jesus Christ. One passage that is incorrectly used to impugn God’s character is Deuteronomy 22:28-29. Moses wrote:

    If a man finds a young woman who is a virgin, who is not betrothed, and he seizes her and lies with her, and they are found out, then the man who lay with her shall give to the young woman’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife because he has humbled her; he shall not be permitted to divorce her all his days.

    According to the skeptic, these verses teach that a man who rapes a woman gets to have her as his wife. The skeptic then demands that any God who would reward a rapist with the woman he rapes is wicked and immoral. Thus the God of the Bible cannot be the loving God Christians say He is.

    The reason the skeptic at first glance seems to have something of a case is simply because most English translations of these verses do not accurately render the original intent of the Hebrew. To be fair, this issue causes even those who are not skeptically minded some difficulty. When most English speakers hear that a person has “seized” another person, we necessarily jump to the conclusion that it is a violent action against the will of the other person. This problem has been aggravated by the fact that some translations inaccurately and mistakenly translate the word as “rape.” The truth is, however, the Hebrew word in this case translated “seizes” (tapas) can mean many things. Here are some examples of the way it is translated in Deuteronomy 22:28 in several different English translations:

    • “lay hold on her” (ASV)
    • “taking her” (DRA)
    • “and takes her” (NLV/NAB)
    • “and hath caught her” (YLT)

    By looking at other passages that use the word, we can see that the word tapas sometimes has nothing to do with force, and therefore nothing to do with rape. As Greg Bahnsen has written:

    The Hebrew word tapas (“lay hold of her,” emphasized above) simply means to take hold of something, grasp it in hand, and (by application) to capture or seize something. It is the verb used for “handling” the harp and flute (Gen. 4:21), the sword (Ezek. 21:11; 30:21), the sickle (Jer. 50:16), the shield (Jer. 46:9), the oars (Ezek. 27:29), and the bow (Amos 2:15). It is likewise used for “taking” God’s name (Prov. 30:9) or “dealing” with the law of God (Jer. 2:8). Joseph’s garment was “grasped” (Gen. 39:12; cf. 1 Kings 11:30), even as Moses “took” the two tablets of the law (Deut. 9:17)… [T]he Hebrew verb “to handle, grasp, capture” does not in itself indicate anything about the use of force (italics in orig.).

    In truth, we use English words in this way on a regular basis. For instance, a brief look at the English word “take” illustrates the point. You can take someone’s cookie, or take a person’s wife, or take a bride to be your wife. The idea of force is not inherent in the word at all. If you take a person in your arms, what have you done? Or if a young man takes a young woman to be his wife, is there force involved? No. Also, think about the English word “hold.” You can take hold of something in a number of ways. We often say that a woman will hold the child in her arms, or a bridegroom takes a bride to “have and to hold.” The Hebrew word tapas is acting in exactly the same way as the English words “hold” and “take” are.

    In addition, it is clearly evident from the immediate context of Deuteronomy 22 that rape is not being discussed in verses 28-29. We know that for two primary reasons. First, verses 25-27 give a clear instance in which rape is being discussed. In that case, a man raped a woman, she “cried out” (v. 27), but she was in the country and no one was there to help her. The text says that the man who committed the crime “shall die” (v. 25), but the Israelites were supposed to “do nothing to the young woman” since “there is in the young woman no sin worthy of death” (v. 26). It is of great interest that in this clear case of rape, the text uses a completely different word. The word translated “forces her” in verse 25 is the Hebrew word chazaq and yet in verse 28, the verb has been intentionally changed to tapas (see Shamoun, 2015). Second, the natural reading of verses 28-29 makes it evident that both parties are guilty of at least some of the blame. Notice that at the end of verse 28 the text says, “and they are found out.” When the passage discusses the obvious case of rape, the text specifically only mentions the man in verse 25 when it says “then only the man who lay with her,” and conspicuously leaves out any indication of “they” being involved in the sin. Dr. Bahsen compares Deuteronomy 22:28-29 to Exodus 22:16, which reads, “If a man entices a virgin who is not betrothed, and lies with her, he shall surely pay the bride-price for her to be his wife” (1992). Notice that in this verse in Exodus, there is no force and both parties shoulder some of the guilt.

    The practical value of God’s instruction in Deuteronomy 22:28-29 is easy to see. A man has sexual intercourse with a young woman who is not betrothed to anyone. There is no force involved, and it is not rape. But their action has been discovered. Now, who in the land of Israel wanted to marry a young girl who has not kept herself pure? The man cannot walk away from his sin. He has put the young woman in a very difficult life situation, in which there would be few (or no) other men who would want to marry her. Since it was often the case that women had an extremely difficult time financially without the help of a husband, this would be even more devastating to the young woman. God holds both the parties accountable, instructing them to get married and stay together, both suffer the shame, and work through the difficulties that they have brought on themselves. Nothing could be more moral, loving, and wise than these instructions. Once again, the skeptical charge against God’s love is without foundation.

    end quote

    It appears that once again, your feelings toward God, have caused you to make a false accusation.  In all seriousness, @FactFinder, talk to someone about your anger toward God.  It is not healthy.

    FactfinderGiantMan
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    My reasoning for this is that rape is a form of sexual intercourse. Sex is only meant to reproduce and NOT to consider the feelings of a side. The desire to reproduce is backed up by the need for pleasure, therefore we shouldn't consider the feelings of someone when involved in rape.
    Rape is a crime because it is an act of violence.  Rape violates the sanctity of the victim.  Rape is about power and control.  It is not an act of mutual consent.  

    The underlying logic is bad.  It seems as if the OP is suggesting that if we just redefine acts of violence in more favorable terms then it is OK to commit them.  If we said murder was OK, because it reduced global warming emissions, would it be OK to do it then?  If we said theft was OK, because it was giving to the poor and needy, would it still not be wrong?  The interests of the victim are ignored by the OP, and in so doing, they are dehumanized.  Their rights as an individual are ignored.  They are considered as something less than human, and only what they can contribute to some evolutionary goal is considered.
    Not sure why you brought up the evolutionary angel but the idea actually can be a result of religious dogma...

    Deuteronomy 22:28- 29 “If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl’s father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.”

    Seems that dehumanizes women along the same lines.
    You have misread the passage, again.  I'm just going to quote from Apologetic Press:

    begin quote:

    One prevalent idea in skeptical circles is that the God of the Old Testament is cruel and condones practices that are immoral. Each example that skeptics have provided to prove this thesis, however, has been shown to be false. We see time and again that the God of the Old Testament is the same God of love that we observe in the life and personality of Jesus Christ. One passage that is incorrectly used to impugn God’s character is Deuteronomy 22:28-29. Moses wrote:

    If a man finds a young woman who is a virgin, who is not betrothed, and he seizes her and lies with her, and they are found out, then the man who lay with her shall give to the young woman’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife because he has humbled her; he shall not be permitted to divorce her all his days.

    According to the skeptic, these verses teach that a man who rapes a woman gets to have her as his wife. The skeptic then demands that any God who would reward a rapist with the woman he rapes is wicked and immoral. Thus the God of the Bible cannot be the loving God Christians say He is.

    The reason the skeptic at first glance seems to have something of a case is simply because most English translations of these verses do not accurately render the original intent of the Hebrew. To be fair, this issue causes even those who are not skeptically minded some difficulty. When most English speakers hear that a person has “seized” another person, we necessarily jump to the conclusion that it is a violent action against the will of the other person. This problem has been aggravated by the fact that some translations inaccurately and mistakenly translate the word as “rape.” The truth is, however, the Hebrew word in this case translated “seizes” (tapas) can mean many things. Here are some examples of the way it is translated in Deuteronomy 22:28 in several different English translations:

    • “lay hold on her” (ASV)
    • “taking her” (DRA)
    • “and takes her” (NLV/NAB)
    • “and hath caught her” (YLT)

    By looking at other passages that use the word, we can see that the word tapas sometimes has nothing to do with force, and therefore nothing to do with rape. As Greg Bahnsen has written:

    The Hebrew word tapas (“lay hold of her,” emphasized above) simply means to take hold of something, grasp it in hand, and (by application) to capture or seize something. It is the verb used for “handling” the harp and flute (Gen. 4:21), the sword (Ezek. 21:11; 30:21), the sickle (Jer. 50:16), the shield (Jer. 46:9), the oars (Ezek. 27:29), and the bow (Amos 2:15). It is likewise used for “taking” God’s name (Prov. 30:9) or “dealing” with the law of God (Jer. 2:8). Joseph’s garment was “grasped” (Gen. 39:12; cf. 1 Kings 11:30), even as Moses “took” the two tablets of the law (Deut. 9:17)… [T]he Hebrew verb “to handle, grasp, capture” does not in itself indicate anything about the use of force (italics in orig.).

    In truth, we use English words in this way on a regular basis. For instance, a brief look at the English word “take” illustrates the point. You can take someone’s cookie, or take a person’s wife, or take a bride to be your wife. The idea of force is not inherent in the word at all. If you take a person in your arms, what have you done? Or if a young man takes a young woman to be his wife, is there force involved? No. Also, think about the English word “hold.” You can take hold of something in a number of ways. We often say that a woman will hold the child in her arms, or a bridegroom takes a bride to “have and to hold.” The Hebrew word tapas is acting in exactly the same way as the English words “hold” and “take” are.

    In addition, it is clearly evident from the immediate context of Deuteronomy 22 that rape is not being discussed in verses 28-29. We know that for two primary reasons. First, verses 25-27 give a clear instance in which rape is being discussed. In that case, a man raped a woman, she “cried out” (v. 27), but she was in the country and no one was there to help her. The text says that the man who committed the crime “shall die” (v. 25), but the Israelites were supposed to “do nothing to the young woman” since “there is in the young woman no sin worthy of death” (v. 26). It is of great interest that in this clear case of rape, the text uses a completely different word. The word translated “forces her” in verse 25 is the Hebrew word chazaq and yet in verse 28, the verb has been intentionally changed to tapas (see Shamoun, 2015). Second, the natural reading of verses 28-29 makes it evident that both parties are guilty of at least some of the blame. Notice that at the end of verse 28 the text says, “and they are found out.” When the passage discusses the obvious case of rape, the text specifically only mentions the man in verse 25 when it says “then only the man who lay with her,” and conspicuously leaves out any indication of “they” being involved in the sin. Dr. Bahsen compares Deuteronomy 22:28-29 to Exodus 22:16, which reads, “If a man entices a virgin who is not betrothed, and lies with her, he shall surely pay the bride-price for her to be his wife” (1992). Notice that in this verse in Exodus, there is no force and both parties shoulder some of the guilt.

    The practical value of God’s instruction in Deuteronomy 22:28-29 is easy to see. A man has sexual intercourse with a young woman who is not betrothed to anyone. There is no force involved, and it is not rape. But their action has been discovered. Now, who in the land of Israel wanted to marry a young girl who has not kept herself pure? The man cannot walk away from his sin. He has put the young woman in a very difficult life situation, in which there would be few (or no) other men who would want to marry her. Since it was often the case that women had an extremely difficult time financially without the help of a husband, this would be even more devastating to the young woman. God holds both the parties accountable, instructing them to get married and stay together, both suffer the shame, and work through the difficulties that they have brought on themselves. Nothing could be more moral, loving, and wise than these instructions. Once again, the skeptical charge against God’s love is without foundation.

    One prevalent idea in skeptical circles is that the God of the Old Testament is cruel and condones practices that are immoral. Each example that skeptics have provided to prove this thesis, however, has been shown to be false. We see time and again that the God of the Old Testament is the same God of love that we observe in the life and personality of Jesus Christ. One passage that is incorrectly used to impugn God’s character is Deuteronomy 22:28-29. Moses wrote:

    If a man finds a young woman who is a virgin, who is not betrothed, and he seizes her and lies with her, and they are found out, then the man who lay with her shall give to the young woman’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife because he has humbled her; he shall not be permitted to divorce her all his days.

    According to the skeptic, these verses teach that a man who rapes a woman gets to have her as his wife. The skeptic then demands that any God who would reward a rapist with the woman he rapes is wicked and immoral. Thus the God of the Bible cannot be the loving God Christians say He is.

    The reason the skeptic at first glance seems to have something of a case is simply because most English translations of these verses do not accurately render the original intent of the Hebrew. To be fair, this issue causes even those who are not skeptically minded some difficulty. When most English speakers hear that a person has “seized” another person, we necessarily jump to the conclusion that it is a violent action against the will of the other person. This problem has been aggravated by the fact that some translations inaccurately and mistakenly translate the word as “rape.” The truth is, however, the Hebrew word in this case translated “seizes” (tapas) can mean many things. Here are some examples of the way it is translated in Deuteronomy 22:28 in several different English translations:

    • “lay hold on her” (ASV)
    • “taking her” (DRA)
    • “and takes her” (NLV/NAB)
    • “and hath caught her” (YLT)

    By looking at other passages that use the word, we can see that the word tapas sometimes has nothing to do with force, and therefore nothing to do with rape. As Greg Bahnsen has written:

    The Hebrew word tapas (“lay hold of her,” emphasized above) simply means to take hold of something, grasp it in hand, and (by application) to capture or seize something. It is the verb used for “handling” the harp and flute (Gen. 4:21), the sword (Ezek. 21:11; 30:21), the sickle (Jer. 50:16), the shield (Jer. 46:9), the oars (Ezek. 27:29), and the bow (Amos 2:15). It is likewise used for “taking” God’s name (Prov. 30:9) or “dealing” with the law of God (Jer. 2:8). Joseph’s garment was “grasped” (Gen. 39:12; cf. 1 Kings 11:30), even as Moses “took” the two tablets of the law (Deut. 9:17)… [T]he Hebrew verb “to handle, grasp, capture” does not in itself indicate anything about the use of force (italics in orig.).

    In truth, we use English words in this way on a regular basis. For instance, a brief look at the English word “take” illustrates the point. You can take someone’s cookie, or take a person’s wife, or take a bride to be your wife. The idea of force is not inherent in the word at all. If you take a person in your arms, what have you done? Or if a young man takes a young woman to be his wife, is there force involved? No. Also, think about the English word “hold.” You can take hold of something in a number of ways. We often say that a woman will hold the child in her arms, or a bridegroom takes a bride to “have and to hold.” The Hebrew word tapas is acting in exactly the same way as the English words “hold” and “take” are.

    In addition, it is clearly evident from the immediate context of Deuteronomy 22 that rape is not being discussed in verses 28-29. We know that for two primary reasons. First, verses 25-27 give a clear instance in which rape is being discussed. In that case, a man raped a woman, she “cried out” (v. 27), but she was in the country and no one was there to help her. The text says that the man who committed the crime “shall die” (v. 25), but the Israelites were supposed to “do nothing to the young woman” since “there is in the young woman no sin worthy of death” (v. 26). It is of great interest that in this clear case of rape, the text uses a completely different word. The word translated “forces her” in verse 25 is the Hebrew word chazaq and yet in verse 28, the verb has been intentionally changed to tapas (see Shamoun, 2015). Second, the natural reading of verses 28-29 makes it evident that both parties are guilty of at least some of the blame. Notice that at the end of verse 28 the text says, “and they are found out.” When the passage discusses the obvious case of rape, the text specifically only mentions the man in verse 25 when it says “then only the man who lay with her,” and conspicuously leaves out any indication of “they” being involved in the sin. Dr. Bahsen compares Deuteronomy 22:28-29 to Exodus 22:16, which reads, “If a man entices a virgin who is not betrothed, and lies with her, he shall surely pay the bride-price for her to be his wife” (1992). Notice that in this verse in Exodus, there is no force and both parties shoulder some of the guilt.

    The practical value of God’s instruction in Deuteronomy 22:28-29 is easy to see. A man has sexual intercourse with a young woman who is not betrothed to anyone. There is no force involved, and it is not rape. But their action has been discovered. Now, who in the land of Israel wanted to marry a young girl who has not kept herself pure? The man cannot walk away from his sin. He has put the young woman in a very difficult life situation, in which there would be few (or no) other men who would want to marry her. Since it was often the case that women had an extremely difficult time financially without the help of a husband, this would be even more devastating to the young woman. God holds both the parties accountable, instructing them to get married and stay together, both suffer the shame, and work through the difficulties that they have brought on themselves. Nothing could be more moral, loving, and wise than these instructions. Once again, the skeptical charge against God’s love is without foundation.

    end quote

    It appears that once again, your feelings toward God, have caused you to make a false accusation.  In all seriousness, @FactFinder, talk to someone about your anger toward God.  It is not healthy.

    You don't seem to concerned about the victims welfare at all. So with all this bull that you couldn't formulate an opinion in your own words so you chose to spam your argument with, you're arguing that rape isn't really rape, just like the op that you chastised for dehumanizing victims? Classic.
    Joesephjust_sayinGiantMan
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -   edited May 8
    Argument Topic: Argument

    Alright, I'm not sure if my previous argument was deleted or if I simply can't see it. Anyways I'll write my reply again.

    This debate was not caused by any sort of religious "dogma", leave religion out of this. As for your first point, child/same sex rape, there is a reason why those cases are rare, because people aren't supposed to be having sex with kids or same gender. It's not supposed to happen, people aren't naturally attracted to kids nor are they naturally attracted to the same gender. They are attracted to similar age groups from teen and older and towards the opposite gender. Anyone who has sex with kids or their gender is an anomaly.

    For your second point, it is alright to kill people for global warming if stopping global warming is your goal. While I don't agree with stealing money from the rich to give to the poor (under normal circumstances), you should do it if that's your goal. So I answer yes to your situational questions. Acts of violence are made to sound bad because of the societal implant of the term "human", it's so forced into your brain because it was highly supported by the your drive that stopped cavemen from killing their own kind since they functioned better as pack hunters (a drive that enforces bonding and higher empathy). Human "rights" are not supposed to exist. They are just another useless societal implant.

    Listen, your not going to be able to make me logical contradict myself. I'm not going to appeal to emotion with questions such as "what if your mom was raped" "you wouldn't be here debating without human rights" "without human rights and peace you would be suffering like those kids in the middle eastern war". Evolutionary goals being achieved is what gives humans satisfaction. The desire to achieve evolutionary goals is forced by pleasure upon doing so, it is what living beings serve a purpose for.
    just_sayin
  • JoesephJoeseph 732 Pts   -  
    @Factfinder

    The guy is different level when it comes to contradicting himself.
    just_sayinGiantMan
  • JoesephJoeseph 732 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360

    ***Evolutionary goals being achieved is what gives humans satisfaction. The desire to achieve evolutionary goals is forced by pleasure upon doing so, it is what living beings serve a purpose for.***

    Evolution has no goals,purpose or intention.

    Human beings don't think in terms of " Evolutionary goals" or have a rigidly defined  " purpose". 

    Where do you get this stuff from?

    It seems your basic argument is that there's ultimately no such thing as moral value, is that what you're arguing?
  • maxxmaxx 1140 Pts   -   edited May 8
    well, you said "inherently" wrong, which leads me to think rape is inerrant in humans, or the desire to. However it is sexual desire that is inherent, not rape itself. So, rape can not be inherent, it is simply the object of want and take, stemming from an inherent biological desire to have sex. However if you erase the word inherent, then what your question would be is rape wrong. That also leads to the question if causing others grief, pain, and mental anguish is wrong or not. Regardless of which question you are asking, i would say rape is not ok, morally or psychologically. Reproduction aside, you must ask yourself if rape is ok, in all matters; including if someone raped one of your family members. There is no evolutionary desire for rape. You need to prove that first. You are mixing the evolutionary biological desire to reproduce with rape. Rape is learned, not inherent.  @cheetahgod360
    OakTownA
  • just_sayinjust_sayin 1065 Pts   -  
    @Factfinder
    You don't seem to concerned about the victims welfare at all. So with all this bull that you couldn't formulate an opinion in your own words so you chose to spam your argument with, you're arguing that rape isn't really rape, just like the op that you chastised for dehumanizing victims? Classic.

    No. I  am saying rape is an act of violence, therefore it is wrong and immoral.

    Regarding Deuteronomy 22:28-29, I am pointing out to you that it is not about rape. 

    1) The word rape is not used, even though it was just in the prior verses, instead a more neutral word is used, the word for 'take'.  You have based an argument on a bad translation.  In fact, if you look at other translations you see the error.  For example Deuteronomy 22:28-29 in NLT translation:

    “Suppose a man has intercourse with a young woman who is a virgin but is not engaged to be married. If they are discovered, 29 he must pay her father fifty pieces of silver. Then he must marry the young woman because he violated her, and he may never divorce her as long as he lives.

    Arguments based on bad translations are not good arguments.

    2) If this were rape, then passages that proceeds it would apply  See Deuteronomy 22:25-26, explains what happens in the case of rape:

     “But if the man meets the engaged woman out in the country, and he rapes her, then only the man must die. 26 Do nothing to the young woman; she has committed no crime worthy of death. She is as innocent as a murder victim. 
    3) The passage, Deuteronomy 22:28-29, itself suggests that the sex is consensual.  The phrase 'If they are discovered' strongly suggests this, if it were truly rape, then the man could be killed, however, to be completely accurate, in the OT, any crime that has as the maximum penalty - the death penalty, could be given a lesser  sentence or punishment, except for murder.

    I am not supporting rape, but supporting accurate biblical interpretation.  

    FactfinderGiantMan
  • BarnardotBarnardot 543 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360 ;Hi this is my first debate on this website, I'm probably gonna get banned soon but hey, controversial debates are always the quickest to attract attention

    Thats not contraversial. Thats outright offensive, childish, silly and has no place here. Its not that you will proberly be banned you will get banned.

  • just_sayinjust_sayin 1065 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360

    This debate was not caused by any sort of religious "dogma", leave religion out of this.

    My argument was that rape was an act of violence.  You don't have to be religious to think acts of violence are unjust.  It helps, but it is not essential.  You ignored the fact that rape is an act of violence in your response.  

    As for your first point, child/same sex rape, there is a reason why those cases are rare, because people aren't supposed to be having sex with kids or same gender. It's not supposed to happen, people aren't naturally attracted to kids nor are they naturally attracted to the same gender. They are attracted to similar age groups from teen and older and towards the opposite gender. Anyone who has sex with kids or their gender is an anomaly.

    I'm not sure who you are speaking to here.  I don't remember mentioning child rape.  However, I'll piggy back off of this argument to illustrate the obvious - if violence is OK, then one can rationalize child rape.  One could claim they are either passing on their 'genes' or establishing a relationship where they can pass on their 'genes' for evolutionary purposes.  

    For your second point, it is alright to kill people for global warming if stopping global warming is your goal. While I don't agree with stealing money from the rich to give to the poor (under normal circumstances), you should do it if that's your goal. So I answer yes to your situational questions. Acts of violence are made to sound bad because of the societal implant of the term "human", it's so forced into your brain because it was highly supported by the your drive that stopped cavemen from killing their own kind since they functioned better as pack hunters (a drive that enforces bonding and higher empathy). Human "rights" are not supposed to exist. They are just another useless societal implant.

    So I have to assume since you think acts of violence are OK, if you deem the goal sufficient.  Who determines this in your argument?  The individual or the group.  I believe in objective morality, therefore for me, God determines what is good and what is wrong.  

    The expression 'Acts of violence are made to sound bad ' suggests that in your argument, acts of violence are either good, or a tool to achieve a means, and the impact upon the victim is not sufficiently important to stop such acts of violence. You have not explained why the rights, or interests, of the victims are of less value, than the rights, or interests, of the rapist.  

    Listen, your not going to be able to make me logical contradict myself. I'm not going to appeal to emotion with questions such as "what if your mom was raped" "you wouldn't be here debating without human rights" "without human rights and peace you would be suffering like those kids in the middle eastern war". Evolutionary goals being achieved is what gives humans satisfaction. The desire to achieve evolutionary goals is forced by pleasure upon doing so, it is what living beings serve a purpose for.

    I wish I could give you a megaphone.  Not because I agree with you, but because you are an honest evolutionist, who sees morality as arbitrary and only about promoting evolutionary goals.  I see your view as not just deficient, but immoral and unjust.  It reveals how evolution is not a good foundation for morality and how it tends towards dehumanizing its victims in pursuit of its goals. However, the logic is consistent, if there is no objective morality and actions are just about evolutionary goals - then the evolutionist can easily rationalize rape - for there is no objective moral values to appeal to. 
    FactfinderGiantMan
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -  
    Argument Topic: PLEASE READ

    To any viewers I will only be debating with 2 people maximum. If you want your argument to go in you should suggest it to just_sayin or factfinder.
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -  
    Argument Topic: Argument

    I will skip to your second point since you realized that I had no objection to “acts of violence.”

    I was responding to factfinder on his claim that child rape and same gender rape cannot reproduce.

    I deem my own arguments right or wrong. I do not agree with objective morality.

    Yes, acts of violence are simply a tool. Why did I write the topic “rape is not inherently wrong” and not “rape is right”? Neutral. Tools are neutral, they can be used for both your idea of good and evil. I don’t care about the rights or value of either, I only care what is trying to be accomplished. In order to accomplish reproducing an offspring, the raped must lose their goal of not being raped. In order to achieve the goal of not being raped, the rapist must give up the goal of reproduction’s driving force (sexual desire).

    “I see your view as not just deficient but immoral and unjust.” Unjust meaning not according to moral value.

    I see your view as not just deficient but ILLOGICAL and not according to logic. After all, anything to the other view is opposite. -2 is the same to 2 that 2 is to -2. We just like to hate on opposites because we simply can’t relate.

    So you are saying I am correct because I say that morality is wrong and a hindrance. And by thinking in that way, I am right due to my own view?
  • JoesephJoeseph 732 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360


    Who are you responding to exactly? It would help if you mentioned.
  • JoesephJoeseph 732 Pts   -   edited May 8
    @cheetahgod360

    This is a debate site , if you want to be selective about who you reply to why not just say you don't intend to reply to any difficult counters to your irrational rants?

    Also try tag who you're replying to or can  you not figure out how?
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -  
    How do I mention who I reply to then? Also, I simply don’t want to waste my time replying over and over to different people. I’ve already given you the option to get your arguments added. Simply by asking the 2 people I stated (just_sayin, factfinder), I won’t waste anymore time if your going to distress how it’s inconvenient to ask someone else to type your argument.
  • JoesephJoeseph 732 Pts   -   edited May 8
    @cheetahgod360

    By copy and pasting their names, try and get an adult to help if you find it to difficult.

    Yes I know you're on a debate site and find it inconvenient to debate  more than two people , maybe you need another " hobby"?

    So you're suggesting I get other  members to type my arguments for me? You really are a prize retard is it genetic or what?
    Factfinder
  • just_sayinjust_sayin 1065 Pts   -   edited May 8
    I will skip to your second point since you realized that I had no objection to “acts of violence.”

    I was responding to factfinder on his claim that child rape and same gender rape cannot reproduce.

    I deem my own arguments right or wrong. I do not agree with objective morality.

    Yes, acts of violence are simply a tool. Why did I write the topic “rape is not inherently wrong” and not “rape is right”? Neutral. Tools are neutral, they can be used for both your idea of good and evil. I don’t care about the rights or value of either, I only care what is trying to be accomplished. In order to accomplish reproducing an offspring, the raped must lose their goal of not being raped. In order to achieve the goal of not being raped, the rapist must give up the goal of reproduction’s driving force (sexual desire).

    “I see your view as not just deficient but immoral and unjust.” Unjust meaning not according to moral value.

    I see your view as not just deficient but ILLOGICAL and not according to logic. After all, anything to the other view is opposite. -2 is the same to 2 that 2 is to -2. We just like to hate on opposites because we simply can’t relate.

    So you are saying I am correct because I say that morality is wrong and a hindrance. And by thinking in that way, I am right due to my own view?
    So you are saying I am correct because I say that morality is wrong and a hindrance. And by thinking in that way, I am right due to my own view?

    No, the exact opposite.  I am saying that premise is false.  It is consistent with atheistic thought though, which claims there are no objective morals, and good and evil are simply the preferences of an individual or group.  This is the kind of rationale that such a morality built on atheistic thought leads to.  I am not endorsing the argument, rather I am holding it up, as a cautionary tale of what happens when you have a system of morality that does not have an objective moral base reaches its logical conclusion.  

    Again, I want to give you a bullhorn so that others can hear you.  Most of the atheists on this site would agree that there is no objective morality, but would get uncomfortable with the logical conclusion - that acts of violence are OK.  They cling to a religious morality that their view does not support.  Their moral values are borrowed from a system they reject.  If they were logically consistent, they would be pro-rape also.

    However, I do not share their deficient moral world view.  Again, I ask, why the victim's interests, needs, rights, are of lesser importance than the rapist's?  From a purely evolutionary world view, they should be equal.  Do you believe that might makes right?  Who determines what is right and wrong in your argument when interests conflict?
    FactfinderGiantMan
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    @just_sayin

    No. I  am saying rape is an act of violence, therefore it is wrong and immoral.

    Good to know.

    1) The word rape is not used, even though it was just in the prior verses, instead a more neutral word is used, the word for 'take'.  You have based an argument on a bad translation.  In fact, if you look at other translations you see the error.  For example Deuteronomy 22:28-29 in NLT translation:

    The word "rape" is used in some translations like the NIV. 

    28 If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, 29 he shall pay her father fifty shekels[a] of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.

    So cherry picking translations can not bring a satisfying conclusion about as neither one of us are qualified to make such determinations arbitrarily. The entire context must be considered and established.

    Arguments based on bad translations are not good arguments.

    2) If this were rape, then passages that proceeds it would apply  See Deuteronomy 22:25-26, explains what happens in the case of rape:

     “But if the man meets the engaged woman out in the country, and he rapes her, then only the man must die. 26 Do nothing to the young woman; she has committed no crime worthy of death. She is as innocent as a murder victim. 
    3) The passage, Deuteronomy 22:28-29, itself suggests that the sex is consensual.  The phrase 'If they are discovered' strongly suggests this, if it were truly rape, then the man could be killed, however, to be completely accurate, in the OT, any crime that has as the maximum penalty - the death penalty, could be given a lesser  sentence or punishment, except for murder.

    Not necessarily. Not all rapes are violent and not all victims cry out for help. The only prerequisite for establishing rape mentioned is if the maid should cry out or not; which we all know isn't true. Or is that your argument, that rape is determined only in one way, if the victim cried out?

    Meanwhile going back even further in the chapter to establish a more solid contextual foundation we realize sexual behavior in general that includes rape is being discussed. "If they are discovered" can have more applications then the just the one you suggest. A rapist and victim can be discovered and the participants remain rapist and victim. The realization that emotions are running high when a victim finds herself in this kind of extreme situation can cause women to react differently. Women have been known to forgive their assailants and have even entered relationships with them. Given the point in time that we're talking about the victim in a field could sense the isolation of her circumstance and simply submit in an effort to avoid any potential violence as well. Like an instinctual survival response. Remember this is a time where women were often referenced with the same frame of mind as when mentioning cattle to the extent her parents would have to keep proof of her virginity... 


    Deuteronomy 22: 

    13 If a man takes a wife and, after sleeping with her, dislikes her 14 and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying, “I married this woman, but when I approached her, I did not find proof of her virginity,” 15 then the young woman’s father and mother shall bring to the town elders at the gate proof that she was a virgin. 16 Her father will say to the elders, “I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her. 17 Now he has slandered her and said, ‘I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.’ But here is the proof of my daughter’s virginity.” Then her parents shall display the cloth before the elders of the town, 18 and the elders shall take the man and punish him. 19 They shall fine him a hundred shekels[b] of silver and give them to the young woman’s father, because this man has given an Israelite virgin a bad name. She shall continue to be his wife; he must not divorce her as long as he lives.

    20 If, however, the charge is true and no proof of the young woman’s virginity can be found, 21 she shall be brought to the door of her father’s house and there the men of her town shall stone her to death.

    So a rape in those days under your gods laws could hurt a women in many different ways. She in her situation may want to marry her rapist if for nothing else but to save herself from a life of despair and rejection. If that wasn't bad enough, add the possibility of single motherhood in such an unforgiving oppressive culture. It is in this context that the verses in question should be contemplated in. And not simply which translation best fits the narrative of choice.

    I am not supporting rape, but supporting accurate biblical interpretation. 

    Commendable. However accurate biblical interpretation as I've just demonstrated appears to only condemn rape if the act violates the victims hymen and chooses not to marry her rapist. Well with one and one only exception, she cry out during her assault for help. But then if she does and isn't heard, then what? Also why speak of the female sex as "virgins" as that seems to be what the author is more concerned with; more so than the rape activity itself?

    just_sayinJoesephGiantMan
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360

    As for your first point, child/same sex rape, there is a reason why those cases are rare, because people aren't supposed to be having sex with kids or same gender. 

    My first question was "Are you suggesting forcible rape is simply an act of reproduction?" A yes or no will suffice. Then you can add your logic behind your claim if you don't mind. 

    So rape in those cases are really rape because they're 'rare and not supposed to happen'? But the rape of a woman by a man is not rape because it is a reproductive act? I'm trying to clarify your position here.
    GiantMan
  • MayCaesarMayCaesar 6111 Pts   -  
    Examining your arguments in this thread, it appears that your general line of reasoning goes like this: "If one's goal is X and doing Y facilitates achievement of that goal, then there is nothing inherently wrong with Y". For instance, you say that rape is not wrong since the purpose of sex is procreation, and since rape facilitates that purpose, it is not wrong to partake in it. Correct?

    A few objections:
    1. There can be multiple paths towards achieving the same goal, and some of those path may achieve or not achieve other goals. In practice, it is very rare for a living organism to have a singular goal. For example, suppose you have a choice between raping someone, and having consensual sex with them. The latter option comes with some benefits that the former option lacks, such as the possibility of forming a strong emotional bond with the person, having a more pleasant sex (for both parties) - and, let us not forget the elephant in the room, not being thrown in jail. I would also argue that psychologically employing coercion in order to achieve one's goal is highly suboptimal and reinforces the vision according to which the world is not on your side, but is against you, and the best way to navigate it is to try to subdue it.
    2. The idea that the purpose of sex is procreation seems fallacious to me, since nature does not know what a "purpose" is. Humans assign purpose to different things. One could argue that evolutionary processes strongly incentivize procreation, and sex is the only means of executing that - however, that does not imply that sex cannot be used for different purpose. Much like humans were conditioned to like sugar because of its nutritional importance, yet nowadays many humans eat sugary cheesecakes purely for pleasure (and, actually, to the detriment of their health).
    3. You make a claim about inherent wrongfulness of rape (or lack of it), but all of your arguments reference specific aspects of it such as "purpose". When talking about inherent property of something, it seems to make sense to only refer to its attributes that are completely independent of one's subjective perspective, and one's goal is certainly subjective intrinsically.
    Now, I would agree with your conclusion: there is nothing inherently wrong about rape. There is nothing inherently wrong about any action, since any action is a part of this Universe and its wrongfulness is a qualitative judgement, not a statement of facts. However, it does not appear that your reasoning leads to this conclusion - and I would also add that "inherent" is a very tricky word.

    I would argue that there is no feasible system of morals in which rape is not wrong - however, there are unfeasible systems in which it is not. That is to say, one can employ a moral system in which rape is not wrong, but acting on this idea will necessarily have extremely negative consequences in one's life. It does not seem sustainable to me in the long run, unless one is some kind of an absolute monarch of a kingdom of extremely broken people - and in the modern world such kingdoms do not exist.
  • MayCaesarMayCaesar 6111 Pts   -  
    just_sayin said:

    Again, I want to give you a bullhorn so that others can hear you.  Most of the atheists on this site would agree that there is no objective morality, but would get uncomfortable with the logical conclusion - that acts of violence are OK.  They cling to a religious morality that their view does not support.  Their moral values are borrowed from a system they reject.  If they were logically consistent, they would be pro-rape also.
    This is a pretty good argument for Christians being the least moral people in the world. That they think that there is no good reason to be against rape other than the word of some celestial creature say a lot. :D
    Factfinderjust_sayinGiantMan
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -  
    @just_sayin

    Cool.

    Most atheists don’t like “acts of violence” because they too have the drive that stopped cavemen from killing each other. If you haven’t out what that is, it’s called morality. It can be in their own view of morality that’s far less than the Christian moral view but anything that has emotion usually has morality to some degree. Including me, I just don’t let it blind me. And that’s the reason why atheists don’t like rapists either.

    The values and objectives is dependent. I don’t care about the rights, but it simply depends on what YOUR goal is. To your goal the rape victim’s interests are more important. But to me, if the rapist wins, he/she wins. If the rape victim gets their way, they won. I don’t care about their values, I only look at the aftermath. So let me repeat it to you, values importance depends on situation. In a neutral situation, the variables are neutral as well.
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -   edited May 8
    @Factfinder

    Yes.

    I told you, people are normally attracted to their own age group and to the opposite gender. The people who rape kids and same gender are ANOMALIES.

     If by kids, you meant 12 and younger then yes I suppose. But I have nothing against 13 year olds having sex. When someone can give birth, they should because that’s the evolutionary goal.

    ??? Rape is a reproductive act. Called sex. It’s forced sex. Your asking me that because soup is food, soup does not exist because food exists as soup? 
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360

    Yes.

    I told you, people are normally attracted to their own age group and to the opposite gender. The people who rape kids and same gender are ANOMALIES.

    So rape is an act onto itself but in your mind it is so only when committed against children and same sex victims who can't reproduce. If that be your thinking then it's a logical fallacy. Anomaly or not, according to you rape is just an attempt to reproduce. The fact that in some cases reproduction is impossible doesn't negate the attempt even if it's known to be a futile attempt. The action is still the same especially where resistance is involved. It is still rape and morally wrong in our society and culture. Or you're just making up definitions as you go.

     If by kids, you meant 12 and younger then yes I suppose. But I have nothing against 13 year olds having sex. When someone can give birth, they should because that’s the evolutionary goal.

    ??? Rape is a reproductive act. Called sex. It’s forced sex. Your asking me that because soup is food, soup does not exist because food exists as soup? 

    There is no such thing as an "evolutionary goal". And a persons ability to biologically reproduce has nothing to do with whether or not rape should be accepted and excused, especially where 13 year old children are concerned.

    "Soup" doesn't attack and force itself on someone under the guise of reproduction. Your analogy is a dismal failure.

    just_sayinGiantMan
  • MayCaesarMayCaesar 6111 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360

    You consistently get one thing wrong. You claim that, because reproduction is evolutionary goal, one should reproduce whenever they can. This is not how it works: reproduction being evolutionarily incentivized necessitated making it pleasant for living beings. There is only the biological drive towards reproduction; there is no some objective moral obligation to reproduce. Much like just because sugar was made pleasurable to consume by evolutionary pleasure does not mean that everyone should consume sugar whenever they can. If you go to a grocery store, buy 20 large cakes and try to eat them all, you will get very-very sick.

    Evolution does not promote optimal solutions to evolutionary problems; it promotes crude, easy solutions that work across large populations, but may fail individuals. Feeling of pain is essential for populations to survive, yet it can be detrimental in such cases as being captured and tortured endlessly. It would be great if evolution designed it differently, so we could turn pain off in particular situations where it does not serve any useful purpose. But we are crude biological machines, not optimized computers.

    This is what many people get wrong. They think that evolutionary forces are as absolute as forces in physics. They are not. Over large periods of time populations that adopt particular behaviors and experience particular mutations outcompete other populations and survive - but "survive" does not equal "thrive". Survival of the species is a very different driving objective than prosperity of the individual. Therefore deciding what an individual should do based on what allows the species in the wilds to survive is extremely unwise.
  • just_sayinjust_sayin 1065 Pts   -  
    MayCaesar said:
    just_sayin said:

    Again, I want to give you a bullhorn so that others can hear you.  Most of the atheists on this site would agree that there is no objective morality, but would get uncomfortable with the logical conclusion - that acts of violence are OK.  They cling to a religious morality that their view does not support.  Their moral values are borrowed from a system they reject.  If they were logically consistent, they would be pro-rape also.
    This is a pretty good argument for Christians being the least moral people in the world. That they think that there is no good reason to be against rape other than the word of some celestial creature say a lot. :D
    @MayCaesar,  leave it to you to miss the point I made.  I have repeatedly pointed out that atheism leads to the logical conclusion of the OP.  When an objective moral source is denied, then individuals or groups will conclude that what they want is the greatest good, no matter how that impacts another individual or group.  Without an objective source of good, you can't really recognize what is evil.  Thank you, once again, for making my point for me.  I am loving this debate topic!!! - it is spotlighting the inherent problems of an atheist moral system.  

    I find it hilarious, you are attacking the guy who says rape is wrong and defends moral absolutes, while ignoring the ramifications of the logical conclusions of a non-objective moral system.  That is so you, May.  It speaks volumes.  


    FactfinderGiantMan
  • just_sayinjust_sayin 1065 Pts   -  
    @just_sayin

    Cool.

    Most atheists don’t like “acts of violence” because they too have the drive that stopped cavemen from killing each other. If you haven’t out what that is, it’s called morality. It can be in their own view of morality that’s far less than the Christian moral view but anything that has emotion usually has morality to some degree. Including me, I just don’t let it blind me. And that’s the reason why atheists don’t like rapists either.

    The values and objectives is dependent. I don’t care about the rights, but it simply depends on what YOUR goal is. To your goal the rape victim’s interests are more important. But to me, if the rapist wins, he/she wins. If the rape victim gets their way, they won. I don’t care about their values, I only look at the aftermath. So let me repeat it to you, values importance depends on situation. In a neutral situation, the variables are neutral as well.
    The values and objectives is dependent. I don’t care about the rights, but it simply depends on what YOUR goal is. To your goal the rape victim’s interests are more important. But to me, if the rapist wins, he/she wins. If the rape victim gets their way, they won. I don’t care about their values, I only look at the aftermath. So let me repeat it to you, values importance depends on situation. In a neutral situation, the variables are neutral as well.

    You are a gold mine of sound bites!!!!  I wish more people were on the site.  You are essentially arguing that might makes right.  I'm not accusing you of being Hitler, and I am using it as an analogy.  In an atheistic evolutionary view, Hitler did nothing wrong in killing Jews, because it accomplished his goal.  That's what the view you have championed for rationally concludes.  When there is no objective moral source then what is right or wrong becomes one individual or group vs another individual or group.  The interest of the victim is not considered, because in atheistic evolutionary thought the individual or group is not created in the image of God, but just an obstacle or tool to use to accomplish one's desires.  

    This kind of moral foundation is far from the notion of do unto others as you would have done unto you and 'Be kind to one another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, as God in Christ forgave you.'.  Your fellow atheists are so mad with you right now, because you are saying the quiet part out loud.  Turn up the volume!!!!
    FactfinderGiantMan
  • MayCaesarMayCaesar 6111 Pts   -  
    just_sayin said:

    @MayCaesar,  leave it to you to miss the point I made.  I have repeatedly pointed out that atheism leads to the logical conclusion of the OP.  When an objective moral source is denied, then individuals or groups will conclude that what they want is the greatest good, no matter how that impacts another individual or group.  Without an objective source of good, you can't really recognize what is evil.  Thank you, once again, for making my point for me.  I am loving this debate topic!!! - it is spotlighting the inherent problems of an atheist moral system.  

    I find it hilarious, you are attacking the guy who says rape is wrong and defends moral absolutes, while ignoring the ramifications of the logical conclusions of a non-objective moral system.  That is so you, May.  It speaks volumes.  
    Oh, you also think that there is no reason to consider impact of one's positions on other individuals without god? Digging yourself in a deep hole here, I see. ;)

    Imagine, guys, tomorrow god showing up and saying, "I am leaving, folks. No more objective morals for you: live your lives without me". We will need to survive a short zombie apocalypse!
    just_sayinGiantMan
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -  
    @just_sayin

    Yes, well Hitler technically didn't accomplish his goal as he actually failed at killing all the Jews and spreading Nazism globally but yes. There is nothing wrong with killing Jews if that is your goal.

    I don't know any fellow atheist debaters, nor do I care about them right now, it's simply a process of natural selection. After these arguments are "turned up the volume". Bad atheist debaters will get toppled over and only the superior remain, the less people there are to cause a ruckus the more clarity there is about both sides. And the more quicker one will win.

    Listen, your not gonna do anything by trying to make me look bad morally. I've done that for you by writing that specific title, you should try to prove something new.
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    @MayCaesar

    Oh, you also think that there is no reason to consider impact of one's positions on other individuals without god? Digging yourself in a deep hole here, I see. 

    Imagine, guys, tomorrow god showing up and saying, "I am leaving, folks. No more objective morals for you: live your lives without me". We will need to survive a short zombie apocalypse!

    Add to that the irony of his "objective morals" position he thinks is supernaturally delivered was scribed by humans in reality and given to his religion by human hands.

    just_sayinGiantMan
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -   edited May 8
    @Factfinder

    I did not differentiate rape from the side that can reproduce and the side that can't. Rape can exist in both reproduction and non-reproduction, I don't get what you are trying to say here "forced sex with kids and same genders is rape but forced sex with same age and opposite genders is not rape?"

    Why are you simply repeating your opinion over and over again, "morally wrong" this "morally wrong" that. Try to prove something instead of repeatedly saying your morality.

    There is, it's called beating competitors.

    Soup and the other types of food differentiate. Soup is made majority of water. Rape and the other type(s) of sex are different, rape is forced. What's the problem here? Simply because one appeals heavily to your moral conduct? Killing 10,000 people to save 20,000 people cannot be compared to taking toys from 1 toddler to give to 2 toddlers simply because one hurts your morality?
  • MayCaesarMayCaesar 6111 Pts   -  
    @Factfinder

    I identify as Chaotic Neutral, so I will draw my morals from the most objective source out there: Captain Jack Sparrow. I do not need ten commandments as just one will suffice: "Where's the bloody rum?!"
    just_sayin
  • cheetahgod360cheetahgod360 12 Pts   -  
    Argument Topic: Argument

    @MayCaesar

    Read one of my earlier comments.
  • FactfinderFactfinder 898 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360

    I've asked you to clarify your position. Let me articulate it for you then you can tell if I'm right. You used the term 'inherent' in your op as the key to claim at it's core, existence, creation, the universe has no right and wrong. It just continues. That's it in a nutshell? If so then sure, trying to argue that the universe has a moral code would be as impotent as trying to prove or disprove god. Why participate in a discussion defined in such narrow terms? Sure, strip all human concepts of right and wrong that's developed over the ages making our existence equal in all ways to a rock, then there's no alternative to agree the rock has no sense of right and wrong morality. In the most basic primitive sense there might be an element of truth alluded to by your question but in reality humans have evolved in such a way that rapes are wrong so what's the point of your debate?
    Joesephjust_sayinGiantMan
  • BarnardotBarnardot 543 Pts   -  
    @cheetahgod360 ;To any viewers I will only be debating with 2 people maximum.

    You may as well debate with your 2 favorite people like you and your self which of course will be a mass debate. And thats if you can find them because it must be really dark up the but hole thats yours.

    just_sayin
  • RickeyHoltsclawRickeyHoltsclaw 175 Pts   -  
    Only the demonic could actually seek to justify rape.
  • JoesephJoeseph 732 Pts   -  
    @RickeyHoltsclaw


    But your god approves of it as he told his followers after the slaughter of the Midanites to take the women for themselves as "spoils of war " 
  • RickeyHoltsclawRickeyHoltsclaw 175 Pts   -  
    @Joeseph ; Why not study and practice discernment as opposed to listening to your fellow demonic atheists who are headed to de-ath in He-ll as you?

    Deuteronomy 22:28-29 are the ones that deal with rape (verses 25–27). The law has already prescribed the death penalty for that crime. Why would verses 28–29 address rape again and, in so doing, change the penalty? Obviously, different crimes are in view.

    2) Exodus 22:16 is a parallel law: “If a man seduces a virgin who is not pledged to be married and sleeps with her, he must pay the bride-price, and she shall be his wife.” No force is involved, only seduction. It’s a case of consensual sex and requires the same penalty as prescribed in Deuteronomy 22: the man pays a fine and marries the girl he slept with.

    3) In the wording of Deuteronomy 22:28, the penalty is enforced if “they are discovered.” The fact that both of them are “discovered” indicates the consensual nature of the sexual act. The condition that “they” (plural) are found out makes no sense in the case of rape. Thus, this law covers a consensual tryst. A man who seduces a young woman, sleeps with her, and then expects to avoid all responsibility is thwarted in his plan. God instructs the couple to get married and stay married.

    4) There are two distinct Hebrew words used in the same passage. In Deuteronomy 22:25, the word chazaq is translated “rapes.” But in verse 28 is a completely different verb (taphas), translated “seizes” in the ESV and “has intercourse with” in the NLT. The different verbs suggest different behaviors.

    Critics of the Bible also point to Numbers 31, in which Moses tells his fighting men that “the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves” (Numbers 31:18 NLT). Critics wrongly assume that the captive women were to be raped. Rape is never mentioned in the passage. The soldiers were commanded to purify themselves and their captives (verse 19). Rape would have violated this command (see Leviticus 15:16-18). The women who were taken captive are never referred to as sexual objects. Did the captive women eventually marry some of the Israelites? Yes, probably. Is there any indication that rape or sex slavery was forced upon the women? Absolutely not.
    just_sayinGiantMan
  • RickeyHoltsclawRickeyHoltsclaw 175 Pts   -  
  • just_sayinjust_sayin 1065 Pts   -  
    @Joeseph ; Why not study and practice discernment as opposed to listening to your fellow demonic atheists who are headed to de-ath in He-ll as you?

    Deuteronomy 22:28-29 are the ones that deal with rape (verses 25–27). The law has already prescribed the death penalty for that crime. Why would verses 28–29 address rape again and, in so doing, change the penalty? Obviously, different crimes are in view.

    2) Exodus 22:16 is a parallel law: “If a man seduces a virgin who is not pledged to be married and sleeps with her, he must pay the bride-price, and she shall be his wife.” No force is involved, only seduction. It’s a case of consensual sex and requires the same penalty as prescribed in Deuteronomy 22: the man pays a fine and marries the girl he slept with.

    3) In the wording of Deuteronomy 22:28, the penalty is enforced if “they are discovered.” The fact that both of them are “discovered” indicates the consensual nature of the sexual act. The condition that “they” (plural) are found out makes no sense in the case of rape. Thus, this law covers a consensual tryst. A man who seduces a young woman, sleeps with her, and then expects to avoid all responsibility is thwarted in his plan. God instructs the couple to get married and stay married.

    4) There are two distinct Hebrew words used in the same passage. In Deuteronomy 22:25, the word chazaq is translated “rapes.” But in verse 28 is a completely different verb (taphas), translated “seizes” in the ESV and “has intercourse with” in the NLT. The different verbs suggest different behaviors.

    Critics of the Bible also point to Numbers 31, in which Moses tells his fighting men that “the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves” (Numbers 31:18 NLT). Critics wrongly assume that the captive women were to be raped. Rape is never mentioned in the passage. The soldiers were commanded to purify themselves and their captives (verse 19). Rape would have violated this command (see Leviticus 15:16-18). The women who were taken captive are never referred to as sexual objects. Did the captive women eventually marry some of the Israelites? Yes, probably. Is there any indication that rape or sex slavery was forced upon the women? Absolutely not.
    Good summary.  Even prisoners of war were not allowed to be raped.  Sex always had to be in a marriage setting and could not be compelled.  
    RickeyHoltsclawFactfinderGiantMan
  • MayCaesarMayCaesar 6111 Pts   -  
    @MayCaesar

    Read one of my earlier comments.
    Well, this is disappointing. I thought, "Wow, finally someone new with original thinking and insightful arguments came to this website! Let us debate!" And this is his response. Ah well.
    just_sayin
  • JoesephJoeseph 732 Pts   -   edited May 9
    @RickeyHoltsclaw

    ARGUMENT TOPIC : RICKY ATTEMPTS TO DEFEND THE SLAUGHTER OF WOMEN AND INFANTS AND RAPE AS APPROVED BY GOD.


    That's a hilarious take on the verses in question , you're actually trying to suggest thar god would baulk at commanding rape after commanding the slaughter of women and children , seriously? 


    GOD DOESNT LIKE THE FACT THAT THE MIDANITES WORSHIP IDOLS SO THEY MUST BE SLAUGHTERED

    Preparations (verses 1–6)

    In verses 1 and 2, Yahweh reminded Moses to take revenge on the Midianites as instructed in Numbers 25:16–18, as his last act before his death.[1][3] Accordingly, Moses instructed a thousand men of each of the Twelve Tribes of Israel – 12,000 in total, under Phinehas' leadership – to attack Midian.[2]



    War (7–13)

    The Israelite soldiers are narrated to have killed all Midianite men, including the five kings, as well as the sorcerer Balaam.[2] According to verse 49, the Israelites themselves suffered zero casualties.[2] All Midianite towns and camps were burnt;[11] all Midianite women, children and livestock were deported as captives[2] to the "camp on the plains of Moab, by the Jordan across from Jericho", where Moses and Eleazar received them.[2]


    ALL WOMEN MUST BE SLAUGHTERD ALL CHILDREN ALSO ALL VIRGINS KEPT FOR THE MEN 

    Killing of captive children and non-virgin women (14–18)

    Moses was angry that the soldiers had left all women alive, saying: "They were the ones who followed Balaam's advice and enticed the Israelites to be unfaithful to Yahweh in the Peor incident, so a plague struck Yahweh's people. Now kill all the boys. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man."[15][11]

    Ritual purification (19–24)

    Next, Moses and Eleazar instructed the soldiers to ritually cleanse and purify themselves, the captives and all objects they had over a period of seven days. Objects mentioned are the clothes, all objects of leather, goat hair and wood, and all metal objects, specifying that all fireproof objects had to be cleansed by both fire and water, the rest only by water.[1][3]

    Division of spoils of war (25–54)edit

    The plunder from the Midianite campaign was "675,000 sheep, 72,000 cattle, 61,000 donkeys and 32,000 women who had never slept with a man."[2] Yahweh instructed Moses and Eleazar to divide these spoils according to a 1:1 ratio between the Israelite soldiers on the one hand, and the Israelite civilians on the other. Yahweh demanded a 0.2% share of the soldiers' half of the spoils for himself; this tribute would be given to him via the Levites, who were responsible for the care of Yahweh's tabernacle. Some of the Midianite golden jewellery plundered during the war (combined weight: about 418 pounds/190 kilograms[15]) was also offered as a gift to Yahweh "to make atonement for ourselves before Yahweh".[15][2]


    POOR OLE RICKY ANDJUST SAYIN CHICKENED OUT OF A DEBATE ON BIBLICAL SLAVERY AFTER LYING AND SAYING THEY WOULD DEBATE IT ......


    ISNT CHRISTIAN " MORALITY WONDERFUL"?


    KEEP WOMEN CAPTIVES AND "ENJOY THEM" SAYS THE GOD RICKY AND JUST SAYIN CRAWL TO .....

    More Murder Rape and Pillage (Deuteronomy 20:10-14)

    As you approach a town to attack it, first offer its people terms for peace.  If they accept your terms and open the gates to you, then all the people inside will serve you in forced labor.  But if they refuse to make peace and prepare to fight, you must attack the town.  When the LORD your God hands it over to you, kill every man in the town.  But you may keep for yourselves all the women, children, livestock, and other plunder.  You may enjoy the spoils of your enemies that the LORD your God has given you.

    What kind of God approves of murder, rape, and slavery?


    A MAN AFTER RAPING A WOMAN MUST MARRY HER SAYS THE CHRISTIAN GOD ......HOW DELIGHTFUL FOR THE VICTIM 

    4) Laws of Rape (Deuteronomy 22:28-29 NAB)

    If a man is caught in the act of raping a young woman who is not engaged, he must pay fifty pieces of silver to her father.  Then he must marry the young woman because he violated her, and he will never be allowed to divorce her.

    What kind of lunatic would make a rape victim marry her attacker?  Answer: God.


    RAPE VICTIMS WHO DONT CRY OUT LOUD ENOUGH MUST BE STONED TO DEATH AS ACCORDING TO GODS LOGIC THEY MUST HAVE GOT PLEASURE FROM THE ACT 

    5) Death to the Rape Victim (Deuteronomy 22:23-24 NAB)

    If within the city a man comes upon a maiden who is betrothed, and has relations with her, you shall bring them both out of the gate of the city and there stone them to death: the girl because she did not cry out for help though she was in the city, and the man because he violated his neighbors wife.

    Factfinderjust_sayinGiantMan
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